Pass Your CCSP Exam at the First Try with 100% Real Exam Questions
New ISC CCSP Dumps & Questions Updated on 2026
Career Prospects
Those individuals who hold the (ISC)2 CCSP certificate can work as Cybersecurity Consultants, Information Security Administrators, Information Security Analysts, Security Consultants, Technical Support Analysts, Security Architects, and Cybersecurity Engineers. This means that you can land a decent job. An average salary for these options can be about $92,639 per annum.
NEW QUESTION # 421
What are SOC 1/SOC 2/SOC 3?
- A. Risk management frameworks
- B. Software developments
- C. Audit reports
- D. Access controls
Answer: C
Explanation:
An SOC 1 is a report on controls at a service organization that may be relevant to a user entity's internal control over financial reporting. An SOC 2 report is based on the existing SysTrust and WebTrust principles. The purpose of an SOC 2 report is to evaluate an organization's information systems relevant to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, or privacy. An SOC 3 report is also based on the existing SysTrust and WebTrust principles, like a SOC 2 report. The difference is that the SOC 3 report does not detail the testing performed.
NEW QUESTION # 422
The president of your company has tasked you with implementing cloud services as the most efficient way of obtaining a robust disaster recovery configuration for your production services.
Which of the cloud deployment models would you MOST likely be exploring?
- A. Community
- B. Hybrid
- C. Private
- D. Public
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A hybrid cloud model spans two more different hosting configurations or cloud providers. This would enable an organization to continue using its current hosting configuration, while adding additional cloud services to enable disaster recovery capabilities. The other cloud deployment models--public, private, and community--would not be applicable for seeking a disaster recovery configuration where cloud services are to be leveraged for that purpose rather than production service hosting.
NEW QUESTION # 423
Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability to reuse or move components of an application or service?
- A. Interoperability
- B. Reversibility
- C. Portability
- D. Availability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Interoperability is the ease with which one can move or reuse components of an application or service.
This is maximized when services are designed without specific dependencies on underlying platforms, operating systems, locations, or cloud providers.
NEW QUESTION # 424
You are working for a cloud service provider and receive an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of your customers.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to take first?
- A. Escrow the encryption keys
- B. Notify the customer
- C. Copy the data
- D. Take a shapshot of the virtual machines
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a cloud service provider receives an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of their customers, the first action they must take is to notify the customer. This allows the customer to be aware of what was received, as well as to conduct a review to determine if any challenges are necessary or warranted. Taking snapshots of virtual machines, copying data, and escrowing encryption keys are all processes involved in the actual collection of data and should not be performed until the customer has been notified of the request.
NEW QUESTION # 425
Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data center are also applicable to a cloud environment?
- A. Direct connections
- B. Trust zones
- C. Dedicated switches
- D. Redundant network circuits
Answer: B
Explanation:
Trust zones can be implemented to separate systems or tiers along logical lines for great security and access controls. Each zone can then have its own security controls and monitoring based on its particular needs.
NEW QUESTION # 426
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?
- A. Something the user sends
- B. Something the user knows
- C. Something the user has
- D. Something the user is
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication systems are composed of something the user knows, has, and/or is, not something the user sends. Multifactor authentication commonly uses something that a user knows, has, and/or is (such as biometrics or features).
NEW QUESTION # 427
Within a federated identity system, which of the following would you be MOST likely to use for sending information for consumption by a relying party?
- A. HTML
- B. SAML
- C. WS-Federation
- D. XML
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is the most widely used method for encoding and sending attributes and other information from an identity provider to a relying party.WS-Federation, which is used by Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS), is the second most used method for sending information to a relying party, but it is not a better choice than SAML. XML is similar to SAML in the way it encodes and labels data, but it does not have all of the required extensions that SAML does. HTML is not used within federated systems at all.
NEW QUESTION # 428
At which stage of the BCDR plan creation phase should security be included in discussions?
- A. Gather requirements
- B. Assess risk
- C. Analyze
- D. Define scope
Answer: D
Explanation:
Security should be included in discussions from the very first phase when defining the scope.
Adding security later is likely to incur additional costs in time and money, or will result in an incomplete or inadequate plan.
NEW QUESTION # 429
What is the best source for information about securing a physical asset's BIOS?
- A. Security policies
- B. Vendor documentation
- C. Manual pages
- D. Regulations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Vendor documentation from the manufacturer of the physical hardware is the best source of best practices for securing the BIOS.
NEW QUESTION # 430
The baseline should cover which of the following?
- A. Data breach alerting and reporting
- B. All regulatory compliance requirements
- C. A process for version control
- D. As many systems throughout the organization as possible
Answer: D
Explanation:
The more systems that be included in the baseline, the more cost-effective and scalable the baseline is.
The baseline does not deal with breaches or version control; those are the provinces of the security office and CMB, respectively. Regulatory compliance might (and usually will) go beyond the baseline and involve systems, processes, and personnel that are not subject to the baseline.
NEW QUESTION # 431
Which of the following best describes data masking?
- A. A method for creating similar but inauthentic datasets used for software testing and user training.
- B. A method where the last few numbers in a dataset are not obscured. These are often used for authentication.
- C. A method used to protect prying eyes from data such as social security numbers and credit card data.
- D. Data masking involves stripping out all digits in a string of numbers so as to obscure the original number.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
All of these answers are actually correct, but A is the best answer, because it is the most general, includes the others, and is therefore the optimum choice. This is a good example of the type of question that can appear on the actual exam.
NEW QUESTION # 432
Which technology is most associated with tunneling?
Response:
- A. IaaS
- B. GRE
- C. IPSec
- D. XML
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 433
What is the first stage of the cloud data lifecycle where security controls can be implemented?
- A. Create
- B. Share
- C. Store
- D. Use
Answer: C
Explanation:
The "store" phase of the cloud data lifecycle, which typically occurs simultaneously with the "create" phase, or immediately thereafter, is the first phase where security controls can be implemented. In most case, the manner in which the data is stored will be based on its classification.
NEW QUESTION # 434
When beginning an audit, both the system owner and the auditors must agree on various aspects of the final audit report.
Which of the following would NOT be something that is predefined as part of the audit agreement?
- A. Structure
- B. Audience
- C. Size
- D. Format
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
The ultimate size of the audit report is not something that would ever be included in the audit scope or definition. Decisions about the content of the report should be the only factor that drives the ultimate size of the report. The structure, audience, and format of the audit report are all crucial elements that must be defined and agreed upon as part of the audit scope.
NEW QUESTION # 435
The Brewer-Nash security model is also known as which of the following?
Response:
- A. MAC
- B. RBAC
- C. Preventive measures
- D. The Chinese Wall model
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 436
Which aspect of cloud computing pertains to cloud customers only paying for the resources and services they actually use?
- A. Metered service
- B. Metered billing
- C. Measured billing
- D. Measured service
Answer: D
Explanation:
Measured service is the aspect of cloud computing that pertains to cloud services and resources being billed in a metered way, based only on the level of consumption and duration of the cloud customer.
Although they sound similar to the correct answer, none of the other choices is the actual cloud terminology.
NEW QUESTION # 437
Jurisdictions have a broad range of privacy requirements pertaining to the handling of personal data and information.
Which jurisdiction requires all storage and processing of data that pertains to its citizens to be done on hardware that is physically located within its borders?
- A. Japan
- B. United States
- C. Russia
- D. European Union
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Russian government requires all data and processing of information about its citizens to be done solely on systems and applications that reside within the physical borders of the country. The United States, European Union, and Japan focus their data privacy laws on requirements and methods for the protection of data, rather than where the data physically resides.
NEW QUESTION # 438
Which concept BEST describes the capability for a cloud environment to automatically scale a system or application, based on its current resource demands?
- A. Measured service
- B. Rapid elasticity
- C. Resource pooling
- D. On-demand self-service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rapid elasticity allows a cloud environment to automatically add or remove resources to or from a system or application based on its current demands. Whereas a traditional data center model would require standby hardware and substantial effort to add resources in response to load increases, a cloud environment can easily and rapidly expand to meet resources demands, so long as the application is properly implemented for it.
NEW QUESTION # 439
According to the (ISC)2 Cloud Secure Data Life Cycle, which phase comes soon after (or at the same time as) the Create phase?
- A. Archive
- B. Deploy
- C. Store
- D. Use
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 440
SOX was enacted because of which of the following?
- A. All of the above
- B. Lack of independent audits
- C. Poor financial controls
- D. Poor BOD oversight
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 441
Within a SaaS environment, what is the responsibility on the part of the cloud customer in regard to procuring the software used?
- A. Development
- B. Licensing
- C. Maintenance
- D. Purchasing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Within a SaaS implementation, the cloud customer licenses the use of the software from the cloud provider because SaaS delivers a fully functional application to the customer. With SaaS, the cloud provider is responsible for the entire software application and any necessary infrastructure to develop, run, and maintain it. The purchasing, development, and maintenance are fully the responsibility of the cloud provider.
NEW QUESTION # 442
Where is an XML firewall most commonly and effectively deployed in the environment?
- A. Between the application and data layers
- B. Between the IPS and firewall
- C. Between the presentation and application layers
- D. Between the firewall and application server
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
An XML firewall is most commonly deployed in line between the firewall and application server to validate XML code before it reaches the application. An XML firewall is intended to validate XML before it reaches the application. Placing the XML firewall between the presentation and application layers, between the firewall and IPS, or between the application and data layers would not serve the intended purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 443
What is the biggest challenge to data discovery in a cloud environment?
- A. Location
- B. Ownership
- C. Format
- D. Multitenancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
With the distributed nature of cloud environments, the foremost challenge for data discovery is awareness of the location of data and keeping track of it during the constant motion of cloud storage systems.
NEW QUESTION # 444
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